1. (H548) Inbound
to an airport with no tower in operation but with a Flight Service Station (FSS)
open, a pilot should communicate with the FSS on the common traffic advisory
frequency (CTAF)
(A)
20 miles out.
(B)
10 miles out.
(C)
5 miles out.
2. (J18) Entries
into traffic patterns while descending create specific collision hazards and
(A)
should be avoided.
(B)
should be used whenever possible.
(C)
are illegal.
3.
(J14) An ATC
clearance means an authorization by ATC for an aircraft to proceed under
specified conditions within
4.
(J23) If faced
with an emergency where Air Traffic Control (ATC) assistance is desired and
not already in contact, which frequency can be used to establish
communications?
(A) 121.5
MHz.
(B)
122.5 MHz.
(C)
128.725 MHz.
5. (J22)
When a
distress or urgency condition is encountered, the pilot of an aircraft with
a coded radar beacon transponder, who desires to alert a ground radar
facility, should squawk code
(A)
7700
(B)
7600
(C)
7500
6. (H331) When
outbound from an airport with a UNICOM station on the published common
traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) and there is no tower or Flight Service
Station (FSS), the pilot should contact UNICOM or use self-announce
procedures on CTAF before
(A)
engine start.
(B)
taxiing and before taxiing on the runway.
(C)
the preflight inspection.
7. (H331) When
outbound from an airport without a UNICOM station, tower or Flight Service
Station (FSS), the pilot should self-announce on frequency
(A)
122.7
(B)
122.9
(C)
122.8
8.
(H317) What
effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
(A)
It increases performance.
(B)
It decreases performance.
(C)
It has no effect on performance.
9.
(H317) What
effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
(A)
It increases engine performance.
(B)
It reduces climb performance.
(C)
It increases takeoff performance.
10.
(H317) Which
combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb
performance?
(A)
Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
(B)
High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude.
(C)
High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.
11. (H312) What
is density altitude?
(A)
The height above the standard datum plane.
(B)
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
(C)
The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
12. (J13) A
steady
red light from the tower, for a aircraft on the ground indicates?
(A)
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
(B)
Stop.
(C)
Taxi clear of the runway in use.
13. (J13) You have
just landed at a towered airport and the tower tells you to contact ground
control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway
when?
(A)
all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.
(B)
the aircraft cockpit is clear of the hold line.
(C)
the tail of the aircraft is clear of the runway edge.
14. (J13) Pilots
should state their position on the airport when calling the tower for
takeoff?
(A)
from a runway intersection, during instrument conditions.
(B)
from a runway intersection or the end of the runway.
(C)
from a runway intersection, only at night.
15.
(J13) After
landing at a tower controlled airport a pilot should contact ground control?
(A)
when advised by the tower.
(B)
prior to turning off the runway.
(C)
after reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.
16.
(J03) A below glide slope
indication from a pulsating visual approach slope indicator is a?
(A)
pulsating white light.
(B)
steady white light.
(C)
pulsating red light.
17.
(J03) An
airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours often indicates?
(A)
there are obstructions on the airport.
(B)
weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR
weather minimums.
(C)
the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
18.
(J13) Pilots
must operate the anti-collision lights?
(A)
at night or in inclement weather.
(B)
at night when the visibility is less than three miles and flying in
Class B airspace.
(C)
day and night, except when the pilot-in-command determines that they
constitute a hazard to safety.
19.
(J05) The
numbers 35 and 17 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented
approximately?
(A)
035° and 017° magnetic.
(B)
350° and 170° magnetic.
(C)
350° and 170° true.
20.
(J05) 'Runway
hold position' markings on the taxiway?
(A)
identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.
(B)
identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
(C)
allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.
21.
(J05) The
'runway hold position' sign denotes?
(A)
an entrance to a runway from a taxiway.
(B)
an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.
(C)
an entrance to a taxiway from a runway.
22. (H311) How
should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight
of the day?
(A)
Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
(B)
Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.
(C)
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
23. (J27) What
wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway
for the longest period of time?
25.
(B08) Which is true
regarding flight operations to a satellite airport, without an operating
control tower, within the Class C airspace area?
(A)
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must contact the FSS.
(B)
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must contact the tower.
(C)
Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain
communication with the ATC serving facility.
26. (J08) The
vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally?
28. (B08) A blue
segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
(A)
Class B.
(B)
Class C.
(C)
Class D.
29. (B08) Airspace
at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D
airspace only?
(A)
when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
(B)
when the associated control tower is in operation.
(C)
when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
30. (J08) What
designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the
control tower at that airport is not in operation?
(A)
Class D, which then becomes Class C.
(B)
Class D, which then becomes Class E.
(C)
Class B.
31. (J10) The
purpose of Military Training Routes, charted as VFR Military Training Routes
(VR) and IFR Military Training Routes (IR) on sectional charts, is to ensure
the greatest practical level of safety for all flight operations and to
allow the military to conduct?
33.
(J11) An ATC
radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading
of 270°: `TRAFFIC 3 O`CLOCK, 2 MILES, EASTBOUND...` Where should the pilot
look for this traffic?
(A)
North.
(B)
South.
(C)
West.
34.
(J09) Who is
responsible for collision avoidance in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
(A)
Each pilot.
(B) ATC
controllers.
(C)
Military controllers.
35. (B08) When
approaching to land at an airport in Class G airspace that does not have
light signals or other visual markings, an airplane pilot must make ?
(A)
a straight-in approach.
(B)
all turns to the right.
(C)
all turns to the left.
36.
(B09) Outside
controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a sport
pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during
daylight hours is?
(A)
1 mile.
(B)
3 miles.
(C)
5 miles.
37.
(H311)
Consistent adherence to approved checklists is a sign of a?
(A)
disciplined and competent pilot.
(B)
pilot who lacks the required knowledge.
(C)
low-time pilot.
38. (H334) To scan
properly for traffic, a pilot should?
(A)
slowly sweep the field of vision from one side to the other at
intervals.
(B)
concentrate on any peripheral movement detected.
(C)
use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring
successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.
39.
(L34) Most
midair collision accidents occur during?
(A)
clear days.
(B)
hazy days.
(C)
cloudy nights.
40.
(J21) Pilots
who become apprehensive for their safety for any reason should?
(A)
request assistance immediately.
(B)
reduce their situational awareness.
(C)
change their mindset.
41. (H946) Density
altitude, and its effect on landing performance, is defined by?
(A)
pressure altitude and ambient temperature.
(B)
headwind and landing weight.
(C)
humidity and braking friction forces.
42. (H935) To
avoid missing important steps, always use the?
43. (H239) The
positive three-step process in the exchange of flight controls between
pilots includes these verbal steps: (1)You have the flight controls, (2)I
have the flight controls and (3)
?
(A)
You have the flight controls.
(B)
I have the aircraft.
(C)
I have the flight controls.
44. (J27) When landing behind
a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying?
(A)
above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the
large aircraft's touchdown point.
(B)
below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the
large aircraft's touchdown point.
(C)
above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the
large aircraft's touchdown point.
45. (J27) Wingtip vortices
created by large aircraft tend to?
(A)
sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
(B)
rise into the traffic pattern.
(C)
rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.
46. (J27) Wingtip
vortices are created only when an aircraft is?
(A)
operating at high airspeeds.
(B)
heavily loaded.
(C)
developing lift.
47.
(H996) A series
of judgmental errors which can lead to a human factors-related accident is
sometimes referred to as the?
(A)
error chain.
(B)
course of action.
(C)
DECIDE model.
48. (L05) What are
some of the hazardous attitudes dealt with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?
(A)
Risk management, stress management, and risk elements.
(B)
Poor decision making, situational awareness, and judgment.
(C)
Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly
without thinking), macho (I can do it).
49. (L05) What is
the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process?
(A)
Dealing with improper judgment.
(B)
Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
(C)
Recognition of invulnerability in the situation.
50. (L05) When a
pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by
stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote
for ANTIAUTHORITY?
(A)
It
won't happen to me. It could happen to me.
(B)
Not so fast. Think first.
(C)
Don't tell me. Follow the rules. They are usually right.
