(A) Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
(B) Denotes runways that intersect other runways.
(C) Denotes an entrance to taxiway from a runway.

52. (J05) What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?

(A) Holds aircraft short of the runway.
(B) Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.
(C) Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.

53. (J04) Holding position signs have?

(A) red inscriptions on white background.
(B) white inscriptions on red background.
(C) yellow inscriptions on red background.

54. (J05) Runway hold position' markings on the taxiway?

(A) identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
(B) identifies an area where aircraft are prohibited.
(C) allows and aircraft permission onto the runway.

55. (B08) Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

(A) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
(B) Make all turns to the left.
(C) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

56. (J29) Guy wires, which support antenna towers, can extend horizontally; therefore, the towers should be avoided horizontally by at least?

(A) 2,000 feet horizontally.
(B) 300 feet horizontally.
(C) 1,000 feet horizontally.

57. (L05) What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as 'Invulnerability'?

(A) It can not be that bad.
(B) It could happen to me.
(C) It will not happen to me.

58. (J31) Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

(A) The FAA.
(B) The pilot.
(C) The medical examiner.

59. (L05) Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) is a?

(A) mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.
(B) systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for a given set of circumstances.
(C) decision making process which relies on good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.

60. (L05) What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

(A) Peer pressure.
(B) Scud running.
(C) Mind set.

61. (L05) What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

(A) Flying outside the envelope.
(B) Checklists.
(C) Situation awareness.

62. (H998) An extreme case of a pilot getting behind the aircraft can lead to the operational pitfall of?

(A) loss of situational awareness.
(B) loss of workload.
(C) internal stress.

63. (H998) Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements is generally the result of overconfidence, disregarding applicable regulations, or?

(A) lack of flight planning.
(B) impulsivity.
(C) physical stress.

64. (L05) Risk management, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

(A) The mental process of analyzing all information in a particular situation and making a timely decision on what action to take.
(B) Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
(C) Application of stress management and risk element procedures.

65. (L05) Which of the following is the first step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making?

(A) Identify.
(B) Detect.
(C) Evaluate.

66. (L05) What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?

(A) Human error.
(B) Mechanical malfunction.
(C) Structural failure.

67. (J31) Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

(A) A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.
(B) An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
(C) Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

68. (J31) How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

(A) The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
(B) The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
(C) There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

69. (H994) As a pilot, flying for long periods in hot summer temperatures increases the susceptibility of dehydration since the?

(A) dry air at altitude tends to increase the rate of water loss from the body.
(B) moist air at altitude helps retain the body's moisture.
(C) temperature decreases with altitude.

70. (J31) If advice is needed concerning possible flight with an illness, a pilot should contact

(A) an Aviation Medical Examiner.
(B) their family doctor.
(C) the nearest hospital.

71. (J31) A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by

(A) closely monitoring the flight instruments to control the airplane.
(B) slowing the breathing rate or breathing into a bag.
(C) increasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.

72. (J31) As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience

(A) decreased breathing rate and depth.
(B) heightened awareness and feeling of well being.
(C) symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness.

73. (J31) To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should

(A) swallow or yawn.
(B) slow the breathing rate.
(C) increase the breathing rate.

74. (J31) Which would most likely result in hyperventilation??

(A) Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
(B) The excessive consumption of alcohol.
(C) An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.

75. (J31) Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in

(A) tightness across the forehead.
(B) loss of muscular power.
(C) an increased sense of well-being.

76. (J31) The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

(A) regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
(B) a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.
(C) peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing.

77. (J31) A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as

(A) spatial disorientation.
(B) hyperventilation.
(C) hypoxia.

78. (H342) If an aircraft is consuming 3 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 500 feet and the groundspeed is 45 mph, how much fuel is required to travel 75 SM?

(A) 6 gallons.
(B) 5 gallons.
(C) 3 gallons.

79. (J31) What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

(A) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.
(B) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
(C) All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

80. (H344) True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the

(A) values of isogonic lines change from point to point.
(B) angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point.
(C) angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point.

(A) 105° and 16 knots.
(B) 355° and 16 knots.
(C) 355° and 10 knots.

82. (H981) The course measured on a sectional chart by reference to a meridian is known as the

(A) true course.
(B) magnetic course.
(C) true heading.

83. (H982) Motion of the air affects the speed with which airplanes move

(A) over the Earth's surface.
(B) through the air.
(C) in a turn.

84. (H982) If a flight is to be made on a course to the east, with a wind blowing from northeast, the airplane must be headed

(A) somewhat to the north of east to counteract drift.
(B) south of east to counteract drift.
(C) north to counteract torque.

85. (H983) To find the distance flown in a given time, multiply time by

(A) groundspeed.
(B) indicated airspeed.
(C) equivalent airspeed.

86. (H984) During VFR navigation without radio instruments, heading and groundspeed, as calculated by dead reckoning, should be constantly monitored and corrected by

(A) pilotage as observed from checkpoints.
(B) the wind triangle.
(C) wet compass and the groundspeed indicator.

87. (H986) The Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) will generally have the latest information pertaining to airport elevation, runway facilities, and control tower frequencies. If there are differences, it should be used in preference to the information

(A) on the sectional chart.
(B) in the Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge.
(C)  in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

88. (M582) Unless incorporated into a regulation by reference, Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued to inform the public of nonregulatory material

(A) and are not binding.
(B) but are binding.
(C) and self-cancel after 1 year.

89. (H984) For cross-country flights over land, visual flight rules (VFR) navigation without radio instruments is usually accomplished using dead reckoning and

(A) pilotage.
(B) the wind triangle.
(C) compass heading.

90. (M52) Some Advisory Circulars (ACs) are available free of charge while the remaining ACs must be purchased. All aviation safety ACs may be obtained by following the procedures in the AC Checklist (AC 00-2) or by

(A) referring to the FAA internet home page and following the links to ACs.
(B) contacting the local airport Fixed Base Operator and requesting the desired AC.
(C) reading the ACs in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

91. (J37) Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

(A) Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta.
(B) Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta.
(C) Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.

92. (J11) The Federal Aviation Administration publication that provides the aviation community with basic flight information and Air Traffic Control procedures for use in the National Airspace System of the United States is the

(A) Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
(B) Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD).
(C) Advisory Circular Checklist (AC 00-2).

93. (H966) The most comprehensive information on a given airport is provided by

(A) the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD).
(B) Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
(C) world aeronautical (WAC) charts.

94. (H966) For a complete listing of information provided in an Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and how the information may be decoded, refer to the

(A) "Directory Legend Sample" located in the front of each A/FD.
(B) Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
(C) legend on sectional, VFR terminal area, and world aeronautical charts.

95. (H966) Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMS are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory information, such as

(A) temporary flight restrictions.
(B) markings and signs used at airports.
(C) standard communication procedures at uncontrolled airports.

96. (H966) Time-critical information on airports and changes that affect the national airspace system are provided by

(A) Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
(B) the Airport/Facilities Directory (A/FD).
(C) Advisory Circulars (ACs).

97. (H966) NOTAM-Ls (local NOTAMS) include items of a local nature. NOTAM-Ls are maintained at each Flight Service Station (FSS) for facilities in their area only. NOTAM-L information for other FSS areas must be specifically requested from the FSS

(A) that has responsibility for the airport concerned.
(B) with which the pilot communicates.
(C) where the flight plan is filed.

98. (A01) How many passengers is a sport pilot allowed to carry on board?

(A) One.
(B) Two.
(C) Three

99. (A01) The definition of nighttime is

(A) sunset to sunrise.
(B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
(C) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

100. (A14) May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

(A) Yes, AD's are only voluntary.
(B) Yes, if allowed by the AD.
(C) Yes, under VFR conditions only.