(A) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
(B) written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
(C) written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 day after the conviction.

102. (A20) A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for

(A) a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
(B) notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
(C) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.

103. (A20) A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide a

(A) written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
(B) written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
(C) notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

104. (A20) Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any

(A) authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
(B) authorized representative of the Department of State.
(C) federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

105. (A29) If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a sport pilot terminate the flight?

(A) 2021.
(B) 2043.
(C) 2121.

106. (A20) If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

(A) 30 days after the date of the move.
(B) 60 days after the date of the move.
(C) 90 days after the date of the move.

107. (B07) Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

(A) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
(B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
(C) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

108. (B08) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

(A) over a densely populated area.
(B) in Class D airspace under special VFR.
(C) except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

109. (B08) Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

(A) A balloon.
(B) An aircraft in distress.
(C) An aircraft on final approach to land.

110. (B08) What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

(A) The faster aircraft shall give way.
(B) The aircraft on the left shall give way.
(C) Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

111. (B08) Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

(A) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
(B) An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
(C) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

112. (B09) During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is

(A) 500 feet.
(B) 1,000 feet.
(C) 2,000 feet.

113. (B07) No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

(A) .08 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
(B) .4 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
(C) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

114. (B11) In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

(A) Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
(B) Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
(C) Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

115. (B07) If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

(A) deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
(B) deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
(C) not deviate from the FAR's unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.

116. (B07) When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

(A) Within 7 days.
(B) Within 10 days.
(C) Upon request.

117. (B13) Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?

(A) The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.
(B) Pilot in command or operator.
(C) Owner or operator of the aircraft.

118. (B07) Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

(A) A certificated aircraft mechanic.
(B) The pilot in command.
(C) The owner or operator.

119. (B07) Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

(A) Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
(B) Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
(C) Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

120. (B07) Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

(A) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
(B) Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
(C) Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

121. (B07) Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

(A) the designation of an alternate airport.
(B) a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
(C) an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

122. (G13) How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?

(A) 2.
(B) 7.
(C) 10.

123. (G13) The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB

(A) within 7 days.
(B) within 10 days.
(C) only if requested to do so.

124. (G13) The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

(A) 5.
(B) 7.
(C) 10.

125. (G12) May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

(A) Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
(B) Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
(C) No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

126. (G11) If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified

(A) immediately.
(B) within 48 hours.
(C) within 7 days.

127. (H320) What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

(A) Tell the number of occupants on board.
(B) Identify themselves as pilots.
(C) State their total flight time.

128. (I54) Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?

(A) Outlook briefing.
(B) Abbreviated briefing.
(C) Standard briefing.

129. (I36) For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the

(A) lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
(B) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
(C) lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.

130. (I30) Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

(A) squall line thunderstorms.
(B) air mass thunderstorms.
(C) warm front thunderstorms.

131. (H325) SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?

(A) Small aircraft only.
(B) Large aircraft only.
(C) All aircraft.

132. (I28) One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and

(A) below rotor clouds.
(B) above rotor clouds.
(C) below lenticular clouds.

133. (I26) What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?

(A) Cirrus clouds.
(B) Nimbostratus clouds.
(C) Towering cumulus clouds.

134. (I28) Where does wind shear occur?

(A) Only at higher altitudes.
(B) Only at lower altitudes.
(C) At all altitudes, in all directions.

135. (I28) If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to

(A) wind shear.
(B) strong surface winds.
(C) strong convective currents.

136. (I25) If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

(A) Stratus clouds with little vertical development.
(B) Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
(C) Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

137. (I25) What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

(A) Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
(B) Poor visibility and smooth air.
(C)  Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.

138. (I26) The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means

(A) a cloud with extensive vertical development.
(B) a rain cloud.
(C) a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

139. (I25) Which is a characteristic of stable air?

(A) Cumuliform clouds.
(B) Excellent visibility.
(C) Restricted visibility.

140. (I22) Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

(A) An increase in barometric pressure.
(B) An increase in ambient temperature.
(C) A decrease in relative humidity.

141. (I24) Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

(A) water vapor condenses.
(B) water vapor is present.
(C) relative humidity reaches 100 percent.

142. (I23) Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system?

(A) A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.
(B) A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.
(C) A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.

143. (I21) Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of

(A) a heat exchange.
(B) the movement of air.
(C) a pressure differential.

144. (I30) What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

(A) High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
(B) High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
(C) Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

145. (I30) Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

(A) mature stage.
(B) downdraft stage.
(C) cumulus stage.

146. (H102) Problems caused by overloading an aircraft include

(A) reduced climb rate, excessive structural loads, and shortened cruising range.
(B) increased service ceiling, increased angle of climb, and increased cruising speed.
(C) slower takeoff speed, increased maneuverability, and shorter takeoff roll.

147. (J11) (Refer to figure 66, area 2; and figure 67.) At Coeur D`Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

(A) 122.05 MHz.
(B) 135.075 MHz.
(C) 122.8 MHz.

148. (J11) (Refer to figure 66, area 2; and figure 67.) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D`Alene to request fuel?

(A) 135.075 MHz.
(B) 122.05 MHz.
(C) 122.8 MHz

149. (J05) (Refer to figure 62.) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

(A) landing.
(B) taxiing and takeoff.
(C) taxiing and landing.

150. (J05) (See Figure 72) Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?

(A) A.
(B) C.
(C) E.